Most
fantasy writers who create a secondary world invent imaginary languages to some
extent, even if it's only a handful of names.
Some, of course, stick strictly to real-world languages, but most have
something invented. In many cases,
these don't offer any consistent sense of phonology or morphology, but there's
usually a hint of it, even if it's only the Burroughs Universal Constant (that,
wherever you go in the universe, female names always end in a).
Writers
who take a genuine interest in language and naming, though, might put a lot
more thought into the matter, creating names that follow similar linguistic
forms when they come from the same culture and distinct forms when they
don't. Well and good; but few fantasy
writers (unless they happen to be linguistically orientated professors of
English from Oxford) seem to consider how their various languages relate to one
another.
Languages
don't exist in isolation. Well, OK,
some do, like Basque or Burushaski, but they're exceptions. We'll come to that later. Most languages, though, are grouped into a
hierarchy of families, super-families, super-super-families etc. in structures
so similar to biological taxonomy that the same terms are often used, though
not consistently. English, for
instance, is a Low German language, belonging to the West Germanic division of
the Germanic family, part of the great Indo-European phylum.
What
exactly does that mean, though?
Everyone knows that English is essentially a rag-bag language that
contains French, Latin, Celtic and Greek, as well as words from almost every
part of the world the British Empire ever came into contact with.
There's
an easy experiment that can show what the classifications mean. Well, easy to imagine and explain: not quite
so easy to do. Take an average passage
of English (not too scholarly or technical, not too monosyllabic) and list
every word in it. Then look up the
origins of those words (a good dictionary would give that) and count how many
words derive from each source.
What
you're likely to find is that the great majority are either Germanic, whether
from Anglo-Saxon or Scandinavian, or Latin, whether directly or via
French. There'll be a smattering of
Celtic and Greek, together with odd words from further afield. The balance of Latin and Germanic will
probably be roughly even, maybe with more Latin words.
So
why isn't English counted as a Latin language?
Now
repeat the experiment, but counting each word each time it occurs, and you'll
find a dramatic change, with the vast majority derived directly from
Anglo-Saxon. This is because the
Anglo-Saxon vocabulary of English includes the most common words, repeated over
and over: the, and, to, for and so on.
This
is what linguists mean when they classify a language as belonging to a family,
and it's easy enough to see why.
Vocabulary changes all the time in a language. It's not hard to imagine foreign words for, say, house or table
becoming fashionable and eventually replacing the original words, but why would
anyone create a different word for the?
These words do change, of course, but very slowly and usually only in
ways that can be easily followed. That makes
them a breadcrumb trail back to where the language has come from.
Languages
drift apart when two groups of speakers don't often interact. They borrow different foreign words and coin
different words for new concepts, but their pronunciation often diverges quite
radically. Pronunciation is changing
all the time. It's true what the old
people say: youngsters don't speak the way we did at their age. Of course not; and, over the centuries, it
can become completely different, till a linguist comes along and explains how
it's really all related.
There's
a saying I remember hearing long ago: when comparing languages, vowels count
for nothing, and consonants for very little.
That's not quite true, but you have to understand how the different
letters are formed to understand why one can change into another. One of the most famous sets of changes is
known as Grimm's Law (yes those Grimms — they were primarily linguists)
which explains how the Germanic languages differ from other Indo-European
groups. For instance, the English word foot
is actually the same word as the Latin equivalent, whose stem is ped (as
in pedal). Under Grimm's Law, p mutates
into the related sound f, d into the related sound t, and the vowel just
mutates.
It
goes further. During the 1st millennium
AD, the Western Germanic dialects divided into High German and Low German
(that's not like High Elvish, by the way, just a matter of whether they were
spoken on the upper or lower Rhine) and foot in Low German (which
includes English and Dutch) became fuss (the vowel's pronounced much the
same) in High German, which is modern German.
Similarly, in many cases d again turned into t — door/tur, deer/tier etc.
These
might seem small changes but, with large numbers of them going on over thousands
of years, together with word replacement, languages that started almost the
same can change beyond recognition. In
a context without a strong, centralised political or cultural structure, this
will take a form where the language spoken in village A and village B diverge a
little, although not too much for them to understand one another. Similarly, the villagers in B won't have too
much trouble understanding the speech in village C, but those in A might
struggle a bit. By the time you reach
village Z, there appears very little similarity at all.
If,
on the other hand, there's a strong state that needs to issue laws and
proclamations that will be understood, or if authors and poets are writing
works that are understood to be expressions of the entire culture, standard
forms will gradually emerge that become national languages. These often differ little from the language
next door, but their speakers like to think of them as different for political
or religious reasons: Dutch/Flemish, Serbian/Croatian, Hindi/Urdu,
Malay/Indonesian etc. Curiously, with
English and American, which are almost as distinct as some of those pairs, the
political separation seems to have fostered a sense of being a common language,
instead.
Many
of the world's languages are grouped together into widespread super-families —
examples include Indo-European, Afro-Asiatic, Altaic, Sino-Tibetan,
Austronesian and Niger-Congo, along with many smaller families. In the New World, the old picture of a dozen
or so families has been brought down (though with disagreement from many
linguists) to three, with the Amerind family covering all of South and Central
America, much of the contiguous US and eastern and central Canada.
The
temptation is always to try to link up language families into fewer and larger
super-families, but that's not always easy.
Indo-European is a relatively straightforward case, and even that
produces controversy and disagreement.
It's
a special case for two reasons. One is
that it's a relatively young family. Although
there are different models for its origin, it's probable that it descends from
a group of mutually comprehensible dialects spoken between four and five
thousand years ago. The other is that
it includes languages (such as Greek, Latin and Sanskrit) that were extensively
written more than half that time ago, and some, such as Hittite, that have left
written records from when the family was fairly young. This makes it quite easy to establish what
it was that all these languages are descended from and so identify other
members of the family.
On
the other hand, many language families are significantly older, and their
languages have sometimes only been written down for the first time within the
last few centuries. This makes
identifying their relationships even more difficult, especially when they're
isolated remnants of families that have largely been replaced by a later wave,
a process that's still going on, especially in areas of the world that were
colonised by Europeans. Isolated
languages like Basque in the Pyrenees, Burushaski in Kashmir, or the so-called
Paleo-Siberian languages may not have had any interaction with any
"relatives" that might survive for ten thousand years or more.
Some
languages are more conservative than others (Lithuanian, for instance, is often
taken as the closest we can get to how the original Indo-European language
might have been) but ultimately they all change, mutating their sounds and
replacing their vocabulary with foreign imports. There's a point beyond which current techniques just aren't good
enough to detect whether two languages are related or not.
Besides,
associations can be as important as "descent", as we saw with the
huge quantity of imported vocabulary in English. Sometimes these influences are greater, affecting even the
structure and the stable words used by linguists. For a long time, there was a controversy over whether Vietnamese
was a Kadai language, like its neighbour Lao, or an Austroasiatic language,
like its neighbour Khmer. Most
linguists have plumped for the latter, but the language is very much a hybrid.
Japanese
is an even stranger case. The jury's
still out here over whether it's an Altaic language that arrived via Korea or
an Austronesian language that arrived via the Philippines. It displays elements of both.
So
it's unlikely that we'll ever know for sure whether all human languages
ultimately derive from the same source, or if they arose independently in many
parts of the world. The human brain
appears to be hard-wired for language, so the multiple invention theory is
quite plausible. It's likely to come
down to when our ancestors started talking.
Until quite recently (the idea appears in Pullman's His Dark
Materials trilogy) it was believed that language started with a quantum leap
in human intellect as recently as 33,000 years ago, at a time when the species
was already spread all over the planet, and that would have favoured the
multiple origin of language.
Recently,
though, both circumstantial evidence of earlier symbolic thought and physical
evidence of a speech-enhancing mutation of the larynx have suggested that
humans were using language a great deal earlier, probably at a time when they
were confined to a relatively small area of Africa. Although this doesn't prove the single-origin theory, it makes it
much more likely.
Then
again, maybe they were all taught by Quenya-speaking elves. It's possible.
So
what bearing does any of this have on writing fantasy? Unless you're going to actually create a
whole raft of languages, and then treat your readers to a lecture about them,
does it really matter what families they belong to?
Well,
yes and no. It's very much a background
aspect, which the reader's unlikely to notice (though it may be far more
noticeable if it's ignored or poorly done) but it can contribute to that
seamless gloss of reality that the best fantasy worlds somehow achieve. World-making always reminds me of a swan:
seeing it gliding gracefully and effortlessly across the water gives no idea at
all of how its legs are going nineteen to the dozen underwater to achieve that
impression.
The
sounds and elements that make up names can give away subtle relationships
between their countries' languages.
Suppose, for instance, several towns in your main country have names
ending in -ket — perhaps this is the equivalent of the English element -ton. Another country (three or four across,
perhaps) has a town whose name ends in -gad. This could suggest the same kind of sound-shift as those
described by Grimm's Law, indicating the two countries have related languages,
but not closely related.
It
can also affect the difficulty characters encounter when learning to speak
foreign languages. It tends to be
easier to learn a language if we can latch onto familiar elements and harder if
nothing's alike. I have a scene in an
unpublished novel where a character who's good with languages is trying to
learn to speak to the people he's staying among. He comments that it's easier to learn than many, observing that Some
of the words seem a bit like Kimdyran.
Like, they say duvin for a cow, and we say tovien. On the other hand, he tries and totally
fails later to learn another, very strange language. Besides giving an element of his character, it helps to define
the relationships between languages, and therefore cultures, within his world.
On
the principle that "messy worlds rule", this doesn't have to be too
predictable. In our world, even before
languages like English, Spanish and French went global, some language families
were extremely far flung — Austronesian, for instance, is spoken all the way
from Madagascar to Easter Island, and is mixed up in places with other
families. On the other hand, bordering
countries may be linguistically unconnected, such as Hungary, forming a Uralic
island in a sea of Indo-European Slavonic languages.
You
can perfectly well ignore all this.
Most authors do, I suspect, and often still manage to produce worlds
with believable names and cultures. It
can give an extra layer of reality, though, to think about how your languages
relate to one another. And, if you're
like me, it's fun. Which is the main
thing, of course.
Cool article. Still fine tuning the feel for language in my own world, so the lesson is helpful.
ReplyDelete"the Burroughs Universal Constant (that, wherever you go in the universe, female names always end in a)" Hadn't heard this term for it before, but it's always been something that makes me roll my eyes when I encounter fantasy or SF worlds where this is true. It's not like all female names end with a, even in English. Molly, Elizabeth, Allison/Alice, Constance/Connie, etc. It's easy to fall into, though. I have to do a search and destroy of feminine names with an "a" at the end in my own, even. At least my protagonist has a different sounding name.
Of course, there's nothing wrong with some names (male or female) ending in a - just not all of them. I have some, but I try to vary it.
DeleteThe idea seems to be based on the first declension endings in Greek and Latin, but that's only the most common feminine form, and a lot of Roman male names follow the same pattern (Nerva, Cinna, Agrippa etc). Elsewhere, an a ending is just as likely to be male as female.
Great post, Nyki, thank you!
ReplyDeleteRe Japanese, I taught myself a little while my son was learning it for a couple of years. His teacher was Finnish, and there are some identical words in Finnish and Japanese, with not identical but similar meanings.
Now that would have been some language route!
Thanks. Actually, that's not so far out as it might seem. Finnish is a Uralic language, like Hungarian, and there is a theory (though not considered proven) that Uralic is related to the Altaic languages (Turkic, Mongolian et al) and that's one of the two families Japanese is sometimes considered to belong to. At minimum, both Japanese and Uralic seem to have been influenced by Altaic, so maybe words have migrated between them.
Delete